• Littleborat@feddit.de
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    1 year ago

    But doesn’t the intonation simply go up in the end? So it’s good enough to stumble over the ? in the end.

    • margaritox@lemmy.world
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      1 year ago

      I honestly haven’t paid attention where it starts going up. But I always thought that doing the two “?”s in Spanish was pretty clever for that reason.